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It is odd for sure.
But why is 'for certain' considered more acceptable in English than 'for sure'? They both seem as gramatically 'incorrect'.
As with anything in language however, if enough people start saying it, it becomes commonplace enough to become a part of the language, so I often take issue with the idea that something is 'wrong' in a language, otherwise we should all presumably be using what is now known as Old English.
Is this mainly an F1 thing, because it's usually there that I hear it?
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